Example — Bernoulli's inequality

For x>1x>-1 and nNn\in\mathbb{N}, (1+x)n1+nx.(1+x)^n \ge 1+nx. Base (n=0n=0): 111\ge 1. True.

Step: we multiply the hypothesis by (1+x)>0(1+x)>0: (1+x)k+1=(1+x)k(1+x)(1+kx)(1+x)=1+(k+1)x+kx21+(k+1)x,(1+x)^{k+1}=(1+x)^k(1+x)\ge(1+kx)(1+x)=1+(k+1)x+kx^2\ge 1+(k+1)x, because kx20kx^2\ge 0. ∎

It will be used in Year 5 to prove that (1+1n)n\left(1+\dfrac{1}{n}\right)^n is bounded.

Topics: Set theory
Concepts: Principle of induction
Methods: Induction
Skills: Proving
People: Jacob Bernoulli